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is based not only on how powers are distributed in a purely factual way,
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he also distinguishes between regimes that are well ordered,
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well governed, and those that are corrupt.
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What does he mean in terms of this distinction?
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Aristotle's distinction seems to be not only empirical,
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again, based on the factual distribution of powers.
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It seems to have a-- what we might call today a normative component to it,
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it makes a distinction or a judgment between the well-ordered
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and the deviant regimes, the corrupt regimes.
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On the one side, he tells us, the well ordered regimes
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are monarchy, aristocracy
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and what he calls polity, rule of the one,the few, and the many,