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but in the concrete decisions of
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a community or its leaders about what is right or wrong.
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Natural right is mutable because different circumstances will require
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different kinds of decisions.
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So does this mean then that for Aristotle
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there are no universally valid standards of justice or right?
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That all that ends in circumstances that justice,
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like the good citizen is, as it were, regime dependent?
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Is this not to fall into the boundless field of Machiavelianism
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that declares right and wrong
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to be entirely relative to circumstance, context dependent,
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is that what Aristotle is saying?