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and the whole sum may converge to give a finite answer.
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In which case, it's as good as the function.
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One guy can use 1/(1-x);
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the other one can use the infinite series.
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and they're morally and mathematically in every sense equal,
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as long as they don't stray outside the region
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of validity of the infinite series.
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Ok, so the most popular example
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that I've been using in the class, remember, is (1+x)^n.
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That's a function we can do with Taylor series.
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What's the derivative of the function?
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It's n·(1+x)^(n-1), right?