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And a British or a French high
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aristocracy could make rules
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not implement the rules,
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but could make rules as well.
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The unique feature of modern legal-rational
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authority is that this becomes an impersonal process,
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which is not done--there is a
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separation between those who implement the rules,
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and there is a separate procedure--right?
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how the rules are being established.
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Is that reasonably clear,
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what ownership of means of administration means?