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Rochelle says this account of how property arises
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would fit what was going on in North America
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during the time of the European settlement.
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Do you think,Rochelle,it's a way of defending the appropriation of the land?
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Indeed, because I mean, he is also justifying the Glorious Revolutions.
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I don't think it's inconceivable he's also justifying colonization as well.
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Well, that's an interesting historical suggestion
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and I think there is a lot to be said for it.
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What do you think of the validity of his argument though?
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Because if you are right
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that this would justify the taking of land in North America
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from Native Americans who didn't enclose it,