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against the bourgeoisie.
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That's the idea. Right?
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And this is being used in a trans-historical way.
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The trouble is that this is obviously wrong.
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It's wrong in terms of Marx's own theory of exploitation,
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and actually it is also empirically a wrong statement. Right?
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Why it is wrong in terms of Marx?
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Because it doesn't fit the theory of exploitation. Right?
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If exploitation is unique for a capitalist mode of production,
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reasonably you can talk only about classes
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in a capitalist mode of production
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where the labor power is free in the dual sense of the term--