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But then the question is,
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for Aristotle, the question he poses for us is:
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What is the connection betweenlogos,
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the capacity for speech of rationality, and politics?
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How are these two combined?
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Why does one lead to or entail the other?
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In many ways, he's not making a causal claim so much.
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He's not saying that it is because we are rational creatures
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possessed of the power of speech that causes us to engage in politics.
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He has more of an argument of the kind that
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this attribute of logos actually entails political life.
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He makes his argument, I think,