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that is also very much a part of Book I.
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I refer to his arguments for the naturalness of slavery.
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Aristotle tells us that slavery is natural.
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The naturalness of slavery is said to
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follow from the belief that inequality,
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inequality is the basic rule between human beings.
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Aristotle and Thomas Jefferson
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seem to disagree over the basic fact of human experience,
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whether it's equality or inequality.
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If this is true, Aristotle's Politics
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seems to stand condemned as the most antidemocratic book ever written.
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Is that true?