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and if nature intends to distinguish the slave from the free,
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the free from the unfree,
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how can nature miss the mark?
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How can the opposite often result?
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I mention this
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because such complications should alert the careful reader.
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We're trying to read carefully.
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What is Aristotle doing
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in making this seem so complicated?
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At the same time, Aristotle agrees with
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those who defend the thesis of natural slavery.
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His defense seems to run something like this.