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and suppose (?,?) is in fact Nash.
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What I want to convince you of is that
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is going to be evolutionarily stable.
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So I claim there's two possibilities, there are two cases.
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The two cases are either it's the case that
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against ? does strictly better than ? against S' for all S'.
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So let's just be careful, since we know its Nash,
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we already know that the payoff of ? against itself
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is at least weakly better than any possible deviation,
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that's what it means to be Nash.
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So everyone agree with that?
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We know that ? is a best response to ?,