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why in some circumstances it might not be true.
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So for 50 years, let's say between 30 and 50
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years this was the fundamental argument of economics and
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economic equilibrium that equilibrium was a good thing
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because it maximized the sum of utilities.
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But then little by little, starting with Irving Fisher and
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a bunch of people at the same time and a little bit later,
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so Hicks and Samuelson are famous for this,
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they began to wonder what kind of crazy utility functions are
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these where there's some mysterious good that has
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constant marginal utility of 1.
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So in modern terms how could you justify it?