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Sorry, this is line zero.
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This is just repeating what's the case.
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W^ of X^-hat, Y^-hat greater than
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That's for all I.
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That's the claim.
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Could this happen that you've got a feasible X^-hat, y^
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and it makes everybody better off than x^, y^.
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Could this happen?
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The answer's no.
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Line one is, if that were true then it would
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have to be the case that P_X times X^-hat
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P_Y times Y^-hat had to be greater than