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and if calling a man property, or war contraband
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does the trick, why I caught at the opportunity.
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Now here's where it gets truly slippery.
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I use the law allowing for the seizure of property
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in a war knowing it applies
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only to the property of governments and citizens of belligerent nations.
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But the South ain't a nation.
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That's why I can't negotiate with 'em.
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So if in fact the Negroes are property according to law,
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have I the right to take the rebels' property from 'em,
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if I insist they're rebels only,
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and not citizens of a belligerent country?