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another function G of the end minus the start,
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with G as that function whose derivative is F."
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Maybe there is going to be some other magic function
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U in two dimensions related to F, in some way,
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so that this integral is again given
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by a difference of something there minus something here.
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If that is the case, then you can rearrange it and get this.
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But you will find that it's not meant to be that simple.
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So, again, has anybody heard rumors
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about why it may not be that simple?
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What could go wrong? Okay so, yes?
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Okay, that's probably correct