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Kant does acknowledge,
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you're pressing Kant on an important point here,
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Kant does say there has to be some incentive to obey the moral law,
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it can't be a self-interested incentive that would defeat it by definition.
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So, he speaks of a different kind of incentive from that inclination,
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he speaks of reverence for the moral law.
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So, if that shopkeeper says,
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"I want to develop a reverence for the moral law
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and so I'm going to do the right thing"
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then I think he's there,
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he's there as far as Kant's concerned
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because he's formed his motive, his will is conforming to the moral law