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before capital is being accumulated and
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before land is privately owned."
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So this is really an argument for ancient societies,
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without capital accumulation and
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without private ownership of the land.
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In these conditions, if there is no capital accumulation
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and no private ownership, land is commonly owned,
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then the whole produced labor belongs to the laborer.
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This is where he, Marx,
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will depart dramatically from Adam Smith.
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So where does the profit and rent come?
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Well are capitalists simply exploiting the workers?