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And here, in chapter two,
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we see the passage where
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Mill makes the point that John just described.
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"Of two pleasures, if there be one to which all or almost all
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who have experience of both give a decided preference,
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irrespective of any feeling of moral obligation to prefer it --
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in other words, no outside, no independent standard --
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then, that is the more desirable pleasure."
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What do people think about that argument?
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Does it succeed?
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How many think that it does succeed of arguing
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within utilitarian terms for a distinction between higher and lower pleasures?