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because in that case every exercise of will
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would be conditioned by the desire for some object.
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In that case all choice would be heteronomous choice
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governed by the pursued of some external end.
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"When we think of ourselves as free," kant writes,
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"We transfer ourselves into the intelligible world as members
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and recognize the autonomy of the will."
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That's the idea of the two standpoints.
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So how are categorical imperatives possible?
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Only because the idea of freedom makes me a member of an intelligible world?
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Now Kant admits we aren't only rational beings.
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We don't only inhabit the intelligible world, the realm of freedom.