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between consent based and benefit based applications.
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But I think he had the intuition that if he had fixed it
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while he was poking around that I would have owed him the $50.
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I shared that intuition. I would have.
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But he inferred from that.
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This was the fallacy and the reasoning that I think lay behind his anger.
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He inferred from that fact that therefore implicitly we had an agreement.
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But that it seems to me as a mistake.
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It's a mistake that fails to recognize the distinction between
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these two different aspects of contract arguments.
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Yes, I agree. I would have owed him $50
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if he had repaired my car during that time